Loss of gland in Blackburn's Blue

[Kenelm Philip]

> ...or because there was an orthogenetic trend resulting in loss of the
> gland throughout the species.                                    

Appealing to orthogenesis for the _loss_ of a gland has an interesting
corallary. If orthogenesis is directed to losing the gland, then you
can hardly appeal to it for the original development of the same gland.
In addition, if natural selection resulted in the development of the
gland against an orthogenetic trend opposing that development, then
natural selection must be even more powerful than most people suppose
it to be.

	I don't see how you can have it both ways. If orthogenesis is
the explanation for the loss of a feature, then natural selection (or
a _third_ mechanism??) must have produced that feature. And vice versa.

	Note--these are general comments. I am not referring to anyone's
specific claim that this gland was produced through natural selection.

							Ken Philip
fnkwp at uaf.edu